Question: If the Jehovah's Witnesses are the only true
witnesses for God, and if the Jehovah's Witnesses as an organization
came into being in the late nineteenth century, does this mean God
was without a witness for over eighteen centuries of church history?
Discussion: The implications of this question are that,
if there was not a witness for God for over eighteen centuries, then
God did not care about whether the people living during these many
centuries came to know Him or not.
In the New Testament the clear
focus is not on being witnesses of Jehovah but on being witnesses of
Jesus Christ. Acts 1:8, "You shall receive power when the Holy
Spirit has come upon you; and you shall be MY WITNESSES both in
Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and even to the remotest
part of the earth." Romans 10:9 and 10 makes the doctrine of
Christ's resurrection the heart of the gospel and a matter of
salvation. Yet the Jehovah's Witnesses deny this doctrine,
believing instead in a "spiritual" resurrection.
The disciples were witnesses of CHRIST and His resurrection, not
Acts 2:32 "This Jesus God raised up again, to which WE ARE ALL
Acts 3:15 "Jesus was the one "whom God raised from the dead, a
fact to which WE ARE WITNESSES."
Acts 4:33 "And with great power THE APOSTLES WERE GIVEN WITNESS
to the resurrection of the Lord Jesus, and abundant grace was upon
Acts 13:30, 31 "But God raised Him from the dead; and for many
days He appeared to those who came up with Him from Galilee to
Jerusalem, THE VERY ONES WHO ARE NOW HIS WITNESSES to the people."
Question: The New World
Translation renders Isaiah 43:10, "You are my witnesses, is the
utterance of Jehovah, 'even my servant whom I have chosen."
How can the Jehovah's Witnesses appropriate this verse for
themselves and claim that they alone are chosen by God to be His
witness, when this verse is referring to Israel?
Discussion: First, Read Isaiah 43 in context.
It's clear that in context this verse is referring strictly to
Israel as a collective witness to God's majesty, authority,
faithfulness, and truth. This is in contrast to pagans who
cannot witness to such attributes in their false gods. Israel
as a witness was to testify that Yahweh is the only true God.
It is a huge leap to take this verse referring to Israel as a
witness to pagan nations in Old Testament times, seven centuries
before the time of Christ, and claim the verse is fulfilled in a
modern-day religious group some nineteen centuries after the
time of Christ.
Question: Jehovah's Witnesses use
Acts 8:30, 31 as proof that an organization is needed to interpret
the Bible for us in order for us to understand it.
Acts 8:30, 31 "Then Philip ran up to the
chariot and heard the man reading Isaiah the prophet. 'Do you
understand what you are reading?' Philip asked. 'How can I,'
he said, 'unless someone explains it to me?' So he invited
Philip to come up and sit with him."
If this verse means we need an organization to
interpret the Bible for us, why did Philip disappear after the
Eunuch was baptized never to be seen again by the eunuch? Did
Philip use writings from an organization to lead the Eunuch to
Christ, or scripture?
Discussion: There is no evidence in this passage of
an organization whose infallible views must be accepted by all true
followers of God. In this verse, one man preached to an
Ethiopian man directly from Scripture, not from literature designed
by an organization. The eunuch didn't have to join an
organization or submit to an organizations teachings. He never
saw his teacher again and "went on his way rejoicing". If
Scripture alone was sufficient for Philip and the eunuch, isn't
Scripture alone sufficient for us?
Question: 2 Timothy 3:15-17 "and
how from infancy you have known the holy Scriptures, which are able
to make you wise for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus.
All Scripture is God breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking,
correcting and training in righteousness, so that the man of God may
be thoroughly equipped for every good work."
In light of this verse, how can the Watchtower
teach that a person cannot become equipped by reading the Bible
alone, but must read Watchtower literature?
Discussion: In this verse Paul tells Timothy that
Scripture is able to give him wisdom that leads to salvation.
This clearly indicates that Scriptures alone were sufficient to
provide Timothy with the necessary wisdom to receive salvation.
If the Scriptures alone were sufficient for Timothy, then aren't the
Scriptures alone sufficient for us?
Also, How did people
understand the Bible for the nineteen centuries prior to the
existence of the Watchtower Society? What kind of God would
give His people His Word with no means of understanding it until
Scripture is sufficient because it finds it's source in God
(verse 16). Watchtower literature finds its source in sinful
Question: Since Jehovah's
Witnesses believe 2 Peter 1:20, 21 tells us we are not to privately
interpret scripture, how do you explain Acts 17:11 which commends
the Berean Christians for testing Paul's teachings to make sure that
what he said was in accord with Scriptures?
II Peter 1:20, 21 "Above all, you must
understand that no prophecy of Scripture came about by the prophet's
own interpretation. For Prophecy never had its origin in the
will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by
the Holy Spirit"
Acts 17:11 "Now the Bereans were of more
noble character than the Thessalonians, for they received the
message with great eagerness and examined the Scriptures every day
to see if what Paul said was true."
Discussion: First, 2 Peter 1:20, 21 is not instructing
us not to read and interpret Scripture. The Greek word for
interpretation here literally means "unloosing". This verse is
telling us that Scripture is is not a result of any prophet's
"unloosing", but is a result of the Holy Spirit "carrying them
along". We're being told the SOURCE of scripture here, not
that we shouldn't interpret it.
Paul tells us that Christians are to test everything (1
Thessalonians 5:21). The Bereans were of more noble character
for doing exactly this. Even the teaching of the Apostles were
compared to Scripture as the test for truth. The teachings of
the Watchtower Society must also be compared to Scripture. In
order to do as we're instructed here, God obviously expected us to
be able to read and understand His Word.
Question: I Corinthians 1:10 "I
appeal to you, brothers, in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that
all of you agree with one another so that there may be no divisions
The Watchtower Society
teaches that this verse proves Jehovah's Witnesses are the only true
Christians because they are in complete agreement with the
Watchtower and are united in the same mind and thought. How do
you explain Paul calling the Corinthians Christians in the same
letter where he pointed out they were lacking in unity?
Discussion: The church in Corinth was divided into four
basic factions, each having its own leader (Paul, Apollos, Cephas,
Christ). Each faction was acting in an antagonistic way toward
the other three. Paul explained to them that we are all one in
Christ. When Paul wrote this letter to the Corinthians, they
were already lacking in unity (1 Cor. 6:13; 8:10; 10:25; 11:2-16;
14; 15). However, Paul clearly believed they were Christians.
1 Corinthians 1:2 "To those sanctified in Christ Jesus and those
everywhere who call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ - their
Lord and ours." A lack of unity obviously did not mean that
the Corinthians were not Christian.
Also, where in this verse does
the apostle Paul suggest that Christians are to render unquestioning
obedience to an organization? It does not say anywhere in 1
Corinthians that unity is to be achieved by submission to an
Paul also explains in Romans that diversity among Christian
brethren is acceptable. The following verses indicate that it
is acceptable for Christians to differ on certain religious issues:
Romans 14:2-5 "One man has faith that he may eat all things, but
he who is weak eats vegetables only. Let not him who eats
regard with contempt him who does not eat, and let not him who does
not eat judge him who eats, for God has accepted him. Who are
you to judge the servant of another? To his own master he
stands or falls; and stand he will, for the Lord is able to make him
stand. One man regards one day above another; another regards
every day alike. Let each man be fully convinced in his own
Paul was not asking the Christians to do away with all diversity,
but rather to get rid of their unbrotherly, divisive attitude.
Question: The Watchtower Society
teaches that a knowledge of the Scriptures is necessary for
salvation. They base this belief on John 17:3. According
to John 5:39, 40 is knowledge of Scripture sufficient for salvation?
Discussion: First, the New World Translation
used by Jehovah's Witnesses mistranslates John 17:3 as "This means
everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true
God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ."
Literally translated from the Greek text this verse reads, "Now this
is eternal life: that they may know you." Jesus is talking
about a personal knowledge of God, not a general knowledge of the
Bible. The Greek word for "know" in this verse is one that
specifically indicates great intimacy with another person.
actually tells us that general knowledge of the Bible is
insufficient in itself to save us. "You diligently study the
Scriptures because you think that by them you possess eternal life.
These are the Scriptures that testify about me, yet you refuse to
come to me to have life." (John 5:39, 40) You can know
the Bible, but if you reject what is within it, you will not be
saved. In 2 Timothy 3:7, Paul referred to those who were
"always learning but never able to acknowledge the truth".
Scripture consistently emphasizes that salvation is rooted in a
personal relationship with Christ. "There is salvation in no
one else; for there is no other name under haven that has been given
among men, by which we must be saved" (Acts 4:12). Salvation
is found in knowing Christ, not in taking in knowledge from
Watchtower literature. (John 3:16, 4:42; 6:33; I John 4:14;
Question: Since the Jehovah's
Witnesses claim that God must always be referred to as Jehovah and
the fact that others don't do this proves Jehovah's Witnesses are
the only true church, why is God not always identified as Jehovah in
the Bible? Why did Jesus not address the Father as Jehovah?
Discussion: First, the word Jehovah came about because
the ancient Jews had a superstitious dread of pronouncing the name
YHWH for fear they would violate the commandment not to take God's
name in vain. To avoid the possibility of breaking this
commandment, the Jews substituted the name "Adonai" (Lord) or some
other name in its place when ever they read it in Scripture.
Eventually the scribes inserted the vowels from Adonai within the
consonants YHWH and the result was Yahowah, or Jehovah.
Jehovah was a man-made term.
Jehovah is not the only name in the Bible used to refer to God.
Many times in Scripture God is referred to as "the God of Abraham,
the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob". Because God is
referred to by other names in the Old Testament, Exodus 3:15 cannot
be taken, as the Jehovah's Witnesses do, to mean that Jehovah is the
only name by which God can be addressed.
In the New Testament, Jesus NEVER addressed the Father as
Jehovah. If the Watchtower Society is correct that God must
always be referred to as Jehovah, then Jesus was way out of line.
Jesus began many prayers with, Our Father. We are told
as Christians to cry out to our God as "Abba, Father" (Romans 8:15,
Galatians 4:6). According to the Greek manuscripts the word
Jehovah does not occur a single time in the New Testament.
Question: The Jehovah's Witnesses
claim that they are the only true church because they obey Acts
20:20 and go house to house preaching their beliefs. Acts 4:32
also says that members of the early church shared everything they
had and kept no possessions for themselves. Does this mean the
church today must do the same in order to be the true church?
Discussion: First, we must point out that the word
"house" in Acts 20:20 most likely refers to house-churches. In
the early days of Christianity, there was no centralized church
building where believers could congregate. Rather, there were
many small house-churches scattered throughout the each city.
(Acts 2:46, 5:42, 12:12) The use of specific church buildings
did not appear before the end of the second century. So, if we
must do everything like the early church in order to be called the
one true church, Jehovah's Witnesses should be holding church in
In the same way, Jehovah's witnesses, in order to make
this claim, would also have to practice community living where all
property is shared among believers (Acts 4:32). That something
took place in the first century of church history is not grounds for
saying that the same thing should be done throughout every century
of church history.
Question: The Jehovah's Witnesses
teach that the only true name for God is "Jehovah", and that the
only way God's name can be sanctified is by calling God by His true
name. To call God by any other name is to dishonor Him.
Since the Jehovah's Witnesses put an exclusive emphasis on the name
"Jehovah", how can they honestly say they are being obedient to Acts
1:8? Keep in mind the insertion of the name Jehovah in the New
Testament by Jehovah's Witnesses goes completely against what
is found in the early manuscripts of the New Testament.
Discussion: Jesus said to the disciples in Acts 1:8
"You will receive power when the Holy Spirit comes on you; and you
will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and
to the ends of the earth". There is only one name by which
true followers of God should be identified. We are called to
be witnesses of Jesus Christ, not of Jehovah!
In whose name should we
meet together? (Matthew 18:20; 1 Corinthians 5:4)
Demons are subject to
whose name? (Luke 10:17; Acts 16:18)
forgiveness should be preached in whose name? (Luke 24:47)
In whose name are you
to believe and receive the forgiveness of sins (John 1:12; 3:16;
Acts 10:43; I John 3:23; 5:13)
By whose name, and NO
OTHER, do we obtain salvation (Acts 4:12)
Whose name should be
invoked as we bring our petitions to God in prayer? (John 14:13,
14; 15:16; 16:23, 24)
In whose name is the
Holy Spirit sent? (John 14:26)
Whose name and
authority was invoked by the disciples in healing the sick and
lame? (Acts 3:16; 4:7-10, 30)
Whose name did Paul
tell us to call upon (1 Corinthians 1:2)?
Whose name is above
every name (Ephesians 1:21; Philippians 2:9-11)
The answer to each of
these questions is Jesus Christ, not Jehovah. We are called to
be witnesses of Jesus Christ, not Jehovah.
Question: Jehovah's Witnesses
argue that the New Testament never specifically says Jesus is
Yahweh, so this proves that He isn't. How can Jehovah's
Witnesses understand from scripture that God is Jehovah then, when
there is no specific verse that proclaims this in the Old Testament?
They understand this because Scripture tells us that Yahweh is the
only true God. How can they then ignore the Scripture that
tells us Jesus is also the only true God, hence, He is also Yahweh?
Discussion: Jesus clearly indicates in Scripture that
He is Yahweh in John 8:58 when he tells some Jews "Before Abraham
was born, I am". The Old Testament clearly identifies Jesus as
Yahweh as well. In Zechariah 12:10 Yahweh is speaking
prophetically: "They will look on me, the one they have pierced."
Yahweh is speaking here, yet this is clearly a reference to Christ's
crucifixion. Yahweh uses the word me when speaking of Jesus.
The Septuagint also identifies Christ as Yahweh. The
Septuagint is the Greek text of the Old Testament that dates prior
to the birth of Christ. The Greek word ego eimi is used
for the Hebrew phrase for "I AM" (God's name). On a number of
occasions in the Greek New Testament, Jesus used this term as a way
of identifying Himself as God. In John 8:24 Jesus says,
"Unless you believe that I am He, you shall die in your sins."
The original Greek does not have the word "he". The verse is
literally, "If you do not believe that I AM, you shall die in your
sins", and I AM here is ego eimi - the same words given as God's
name in the Old Testament. Ego eimi is also used in
It is very revealing that Old Testament passages about Yahweh
were directly applied to Jesus in the New Testament. Isaiah
40:3 says: "In the desert prepare the way for the Lord [Yahweh];
make straight in the wilderness a highway for our God [Elohim]."
Mark's Gospel tells us that Isaiah's words were fulfilled in the
ministry of John the Baptist preparing the way for Jesus Christ
Many of the actions of Yahweh in the Old Testament are performed
by Christ in the New Testament. In Psalm 119 we're told about
a dozen times that Yahweh gives and preserves life. In the New
Testament, Jesus claims this power for Himself: "For just as the
Father raises the dead and gives them life, even so the Son gives
life to whom he is pleased to give it" (John 5:21). There are
many more parallels in the the Old and New Testaments that give show
Jesus to have the same actions, purpose, and attributes as Yahweh.
What is true of Yahweh is also true of Jesus. They are one
and the same.
||Exodus 3:14; Deuteronomy 32:39; Isaiah 43:10
||John 8:24; John 8:58; John 18:4-6
||Genesis 1:1; Deuteronomy 6:4; Psalm 45:6,7
||Isaiah 7:14; 9:6; John 1:1,14; John 20:28,
Titus 2:13; Hebrews 1:8; 2 Peter 1:1
|Alpha and Omega (First and Last)
||Isaiah 41:4; Isaiah 48:12; Revelation 1:8
||Revelation 1:17, 18; Revelation 2:8;
||Isaiah 43:3; Isaiah 43:11
||Matthew 12:8; Acts 7:59, 60; Acts 10:36;
Romans 10:12; 1 Corinthians 2:8; 1 Corinthians 12:3;
||Psalm 95:3; Isaiah 43:15; 1 Timothy 6:14-16
||Revelation 17:14; Revelation 19:16
||Genesis 18:25; Psalm 50:4,6; Psalm 96:13;
||John 5:22; 2 Corinthians 5:10; 2 Timothy 4:1
||Genesis 1:1; Job 33:4; Psalm 95:5,6; Psalm
102:25,26; Isaiah 40:28
||John 1:2,3,10; Colossians 1:15-18; Hebrews
|Giver of Life
||Genesis 2:7; Deuteronomy 32:39; 1 Samuel 2:6;
||John 5:21; John 10:28; John 11:25
||Psalm 139:7-12; Proverbs 15:3
||Matthew 18:20; Matthew 28:20; Ephesians 3:17;
||1 Kings 8:39; Jeremiah 17:9,10,16
||Matthew 11:27; Luke 5:4-6; John 2:25; John
16:30; John 21:17; Acts 1:24
||Isaiah 40:10-31; Isaiah 45:5-13
||Matthew 28:18; Mark 1:29-34; John 10:18; Jude
||John 1:15, 30; John 3:13, 31, 32; John 6:62;
John 16:28; John 17:5
||Psalm 102:26,27; Habakkuk 3:6
||Isaiah 9:6; Micah 5:2; John 8:58
Question: The Jehovah's Witnesses
use Colossians 1:16, 17 as proof that Jesus was created first and
then was used for the rest of creation. They translate
this verse "By means of him all [other] things were created in the
heavens and upon the earth, the things visible and the things
invisible, no matter whether they are thrones or lordships or
governments or authorities. All [other] things have been
created through him and for him. Also, he is before all
[other] things and by means of him all [other] things were made to
exist". The purpose of inserting the word other 4 times is
that they don't want it to appear that Christ was uncreated and that
He existed before all things.
Jehovah's Witnesses conclude that Jesus played a secondary role in
making the universe because God created the universe through
Christ (John 1:3), then what are we to conclude about Jehovah when
Romans 11:36 and Hebrews 2:10 say the universe was created through
Discussion: By inserting the word through in
this verse the Jehovah's Witnesses change the meaning of the verse
to an impossible translation. The Watchtower Society claims
that because God created all things through (dia in Greek)
Christ, he was created first and then played a secondary roll in
creation. However, the same word dia is used in Romans
11:36 and Hebrews 2:10 to say that the whole world was created
through (dia) God. If the world was created through Christ and
through God, then Christ did not act as a junior partner in the
Isaiah 44:24 also says, "I, the Lord [Yahweh], am the maker of
all things, stretching out the heavens by myself, and
spreading out the earth all alone." Clearly, this verse
makes it impossible to argue that Christ was created first by
Jehovah and then Jehovah created all other things thorugh Christ.
This fact and the fact that Jesus is the creator of all things (John
44:24) proves that Christ is God Almighty, just as the Father is.
Colossians 2:9 says "For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in
bodily form". This would pose a problem for the Jehovah's
Witnesses, who believe Jesus is not God, so they retranslate the
verse to say "Because it is in him that all the fullness of the
divine quality dwells bodily". Greek scholars are
unanimous that Colossians 2:9 points to the absolute deity of Jesus
Christ. Can Jehovah's witnesses name a single Greek scholar on
par with J.H. Thayer who agrees with the Watchtower rendering of
Discussion: J.H. Thayer, whose Greek lexicon is called
"comprehensive" by the Watchtower Society, says the Greek word in
Colossians 2:9 refers to "deity, that is, the state of being God,
Godhead." Greek scholar Richard C. Trench says that "St. Paul
is declaring that in the Son there dwells all the fullness of
absolute Godhead. He was, and is, absolute and perfect God."
Greek scholar John A. Bengel states that the Greek word refers "not
merely to the Divine attributes, but to the Divine nature itself".
There are many more scholars I could site, but these are enough to
demonstrate scholarly opinion.
Even some Watchtower literature
supports the correct view of the Deity of Christ. The Bible in
Living English, translated by Steven T. Byington, was published by
the Watchtower Society in 1972, and it renders this verse, "In him
all the fullness of deity is resident in bodily form." The
Watchtower editors must have missed this!
Zechariah 12:10 reads "And I will pour out on the house of David and
the inhabitants of Jerusalem a spirit of grace and supplication.
They will look on me, the one they have pierced, and they will
mourn for him as one mourns for an only child, and grieve bitterly
for him as one grieves for a firstborn son." Why does the
Watchtower Society go against the most reliable and best Hebrew
manuscripts to retranslate this as "And I will pour out upon the
house of David and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem the spirit of
favor and entreaties, and they will certainly look to the One
whom they pierced through, and they will certainly wail over Him
as in the wailing over an only [son]; and there will be a bitter
lamentation over him as when there is bitter lamentation over the
Discussion: In this passage it is Yahweh speaking and
He says "they will look on ME whom they have pierced". This
obviously means Jesus is Jehovah and this is why the Watchtower
Society must change this verse. We know know this verse is a
reference to Jesus because John's Gospel interprets this reference
as a prophecy of Christ's death on the cross (John 19:37).
Jesus is also explicitly described as the pierced one on Revelation
Most importantly, there is no justification in the Hebrew
text for translating the disputed portion of Zechariah 12:10 as
"they will certanly look to the One whom they pierced
through", as apposed to "they will look on ME whom they have
pierced". The rendering "they will look on ME" has the support
of the large majority of reliable Hebrew manuscripts, the LXX (septuagint),
the Old Latin version, the Syriac Peshitta, the Aramaic Targums, and
the Greek versions of Aquilla, Symmachus, and Theodotion. The
majority of the best manuscripts contradict the Watchtower rendering
of Zechariah 12:10.
20:28 reads "Be on guard for yourselves and for all the flock, among
which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to shepherd the church
of God which He purchased with His own blood".
Why does the Watchtower Society insert the
word Son into Acts 20:28?
Discussion: The New World Translation renders this
verse "Pay attention to yourselves and to all the flock, among which
the holy spirit has appointed you overseers, to shepherd the
congregation of God, which is purchased with the blood of his own
The New World Translation reinterprets this to make it appear
that the church was purchased not by God's blood but by Jesus'.
The reason not a single standard translation renders the text this
way is because there is not a single Greek manuscript that contains
the word "Son" in this verse. The Watchtower society has
absolutely no reason other than deception to insert the word Son in
this verse. As for Jesus being God, we also have Romans 9:5,
Col. 2:9, and Titus 2:13 that tell us Jesus is God.
2:13 in the NASB reads "Looking for the blessed hope and the
appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus".
Why do the Jehovah's Witnesses mistranslate this to read "While we
wait for the happy hope and glorious manifestation of the great
God and of [the] Savior of us, Christ Jesus"?
Discussion: The translation used in the New World
Translation is once again in disagreement with all of the
original manuscripts. They've changed the verse to make it
look as if two different persons are in view in an attempt to hide
the fact that the Bible clearly teaches Jesus is God. However,
even as they have translated it, it proves Jesus is God.
Isaiah 43:11 says "I, even I, am the Lord [Yahweh], and apart from
me there is no savior". A claim to being a savior is,
in itself, a claim to deity, and there is only one Savior - God.
Many verses in the New Testament refer to Jesus as our Savior (Luke
2:11; John 4:42). Since Jesus is our Savior, and Isaiah tells
us apart from God there is no savior, we must conclude that Jesus is
Greek scholars will also argue that Titus 2:13 refers to 1
person. Greek scholars, based on detailed studies of identical
sentence constructions in the Greek New Testament, have a guiding
principle or rule for interpreting such constructions: When
two nouns in the same case are connected by the Greek word 'and,'
and the first noun is preceded by the article 'the,' and the second
noun is not preceded by the article, the second noun refers to the
same person or thing to which the first noun refers, and is a
further description of it". In Titus 2:13, two nouns - "God"
and "Savior" - are joined together with the Greek word for "and,"
and a definite article ("the") is placed only in front of the first
noun ("God"). So, the sentence literally reads: "the
great God and Savior of us." A study of Greek sentence
structure proves the New World Translation is not justified in their
interpretation of this verse.
a Jehovah's Witness trust the translation of their Bible to someone
who didn't know Greek or Hebrew and only had a high school
Discussion: This is an important question to ask a
Jehovah's Witness because they do, in fact, do just that. The
Watchtower Society has always resisted efforts to identify members
of the translation committee for the New World Translation.
There is good reason for their secrecy. The translation
committee is now known to be a group of five men with no credentials
that would in any way make them qualified to translate the Bible
from the original texts. Four of the five men in the committee
had no Hebrew or Greek training whatsoever and had only a high
school education. The fifth member of the translation team
claimed to know Hebrew and Greek. However, while being
examined under oath in a court of law in Edinburgh Scotland, he was
found to fail a simple Hebrew test. The truth is the
translation of the New World Translation used by Jehovah's
Witnesses was translated without any ability to read the original
What does it say about the Watchtower Society when, for over twenty
years, it knowingly cited an occultic spiritist in support of its
rendering of John 1:1?
Discussion: The New World Translation
mistranslates John 1:1 to say that Jesus was a god instead of
the God. To support the New World Translation, the Watchtower
cites Johannes Greber as supporting the translation. Indeed
Johannes Greber did support it, but he is also an occult spiritist
who authored a book entitled "Communication with the Spirit World of
God". Greber claims that spirits helped him in his translation
of the New Testament. The Watchtower now claims that they
didn't know Greber was a spiritist, however their own magazine
refutes this. In 1956 an issue of The Watchtower magazine
printed nearly a full page on Greber and his spiritism.
Yet, the Society continued to cite him as an authority in support of
its translation of John 1:1 after 1980.